Is measuring the relative ease of sorcery within a given world by the relative amounts of magic and technology really just relying on a false dichotomy?

I’m thinking it is. If we accept the Shadow is full of infinite possibilities, then it’s 100% reasonable to assume that high levels of magic and tech could exist in the same world.

Is it instead reasonable to look at simply the magic level of a given world to determine the relative ease of magic?

I’m not so sure about that, either – but I’m also not sure if I have the right answer yet. I mean, we’re talking about the flat 15-point sorcery in the hands of a Shadow-walker. They – and particularly the powerful ones – already know whether a given world is magic-rich or not, and I don’t think it would make one whit of difference to them. But on the other hand, the biggest sorcerous example we have is Merlin, who is a twink and undoubtedly has Logrus sorcery so he can ignore the rules of Shadow, so it’s hard to tell whether such rules exist. And on the third hand, you can say, “magic doesn’t work here,” for a given Shadow, so is that a relative level of magic or just a special world condition?

Hmm. This may require more thought.

For Take 2, I’m going to ignore the relative magic of places – though not the outright prohibitions – and see how it goes. At worst, I suppose, it may bite me in the ass and make me rewrite the rules mid-run… But it might actually also go well…

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